Ah, that explains a lot! We actually visited Sweden last summer (with a camper van), and the first few days were still in the summer vacation. The first night was no problem, because we had reserved a place, but for the second night we only found a place at the third campground we tried. Then, once the vacation was over, the campgrounds were much less crowded (except for an influx of pensioners) - but some attractions (e.g. a historical railway) were already closed.
But are the 4 consecutive weeks during summer apart from the 25 (or 30 or whatever) days? If not that seems actually limiting, to have to use up most of the days in one go.
You are free to distribute your days as you wish mostly. The 4 consecutive weeks thing is something that the employer is not allowed to deny you.
The norm is to use the 4 weeks and then use the remaining days to stretch public holidays a little further.
They aren't, you use your allocated vacation time but are able to take the 4 weeks without question or needing to schedule around other coworkers (it's auto-approved).
Usually around June/July there's very few people working at most places, some restaurants are closed, etc. At one employer it'd be around 10-15% of us around during summer.
I actually prefer to work during this time, much slower pace, time to get into projects that couldn't be planned for. At max I like taking a week off and saving the rest of my vacation days for end of September when the weather starts to get cold.
I don't really understand why some prefer to travel outside of Sweden in June/July/August since those are the best months to be around (and it's high tourism season anywhere else in Europe).
> I don't really understand why some prefer to travel outside of Sweden in June/July/August since those are the best months to be around (and it's high tourism season anywhere else in Europe).
I live in a part of Canada where the summer months are the best months to be here. I used to spend lots of the summer here and travel mostly during less pleasant parts of the year until I had kids. Now they’re out of school for the summer so that’s when we travel… especially to see aunts and uncles who have kids, who are also not in school and thus available to spend time with us when wee visit.
Similar system in Finland. But generally there is implicit negotiations in tech that someone will be around to look after things. And if no one is willing the employer can order the placement of vacations. But there is generally enough people willing to move things around a bit for most to get what they want.
With most office jobs it is pretty free. But when it comes to factories or mandatory services the employer can absolutely ensure that there is enough workers.
June/July is the peak season in Scandinavia for restaurants. I have never heard of a Nordic restaurant that closes in those months, although many close after August outside of the cities. June/July is when they make their money.
I have never heard of a Nordic restaurant that closes in those months
Lots of restaurants in that mainly cater to lunch guests close for at least a few weeks during those months, since 90+% of their customer base are away and they get very few tourists.
This is incredibly confusing. Of course the plural of zero (as a noun) is zero(e)s. But then you state that you understand that it's not about the noun, and still go on to say that the answers sharing your view are wrong..?
There are constant debates about them in Sweden. Especially after fatal accidents or incidents involving teens driving at speeds above 100 kph. [1][2]
The original law considered tractors and other farm equipment, AIUI. You can drive these so called A-traktor with only a moped or tractor license when you're 15.
The article is eliding the enum's payload. A more realistic example would, I think, have each leg of the enum contain a distinct type of struct (or some other data) in addition to the tag itself, and then have each EoA factored into its own internal SoA.
These are enums as Rust coined the term, meaning sum types, not as C did, meaning a subrange of ints with magic names. The Spam and Eggs types contain data
Because "learned" and "reported" aren't aspects? Aspect describes the temporal structure of an event - for example, it might occur at a single moment, or it might occur at several discrete points in time ("I walk his dog every Saturday"), or it might occur over a continuous duration.
Mood describes the relationship of an event to reality.
In school grammar, "present perfect" is a tense. School grammars are basically tradition, so you can call it whatever you want as long as you agree with long-dead grammarians. Ditto for Turkish - I'm sure it has its own dead grammarians.
In modern grammar, "present perfect" is not "close to a tense" - it's a combination of present tense and perfect aspect.
We can say a little more; in traditional grammar, aspect is not a recognized category. Thus, while it is very clear that Latin has a system of three tenses, two aspects, and three moods (counting imperative), traditional grammar assigns it six "tenses":
This is the reason for calling perfect a "tense": it's traditional. But this model won't stand up to analysis. Interestingly, the Romans themselves do not seem to have used it; where we refer to "pluperfect tense", they referred to the "past perfect-er tense", identifying both tense and aspect (admittedly, both under the name "tense", or rather "time"). I don't know when the conceptual distinction was lost.
To nitpick: under modern analysis "future" is not a tense in English: the future verb "will" (or "shall") behaves much more like "can", "may", "must" and so on - they're collectively called modal verbs, i.e., in English future is a mood.
Linguistics does draw the distinction between syntactic "tense" and semantic "time", but in that case English modal verbs wouldn't reflect "moods" at all, just "modality". They're all periphrastic. The same goes for perfect aspect, also periphrastic in English, though I don't know offhand how (or whether!) there is a terminological difference between syntactically-marked aspect and semantically-present aspect.
The same objection would theoretically apply to voice, where the English passive voice must be periphrastic too, but in that case everyone agrees that this is a distinction of voice and the difference between inflection (where grammatical meaning is expressed by changing the form of a single word) and periphrasis (where grammatical meaning is expressed by combining multiple words) isn't relevant. This is just an inconsistency in modern theory, which probably arose because voice isn't relevant to semantics at all.
Ignoring the modal auxiliaries, English would still have moods, subjunctive ("We demand that Robert be ejected from the book club") and irrealis ("If Robert were to be ejected from the book club, ..."), but neither of those is in a particularly robust state in the modern language.
Inflectional constructions express tense through morphology and periphrastic constructions express tense through syntax. Together they constitute expressions of grammatical tense.
> Why is "present perfect tense" closer to a tense, but "learned past tense" is closer to a mood?
Are you thinking of these as exclusive categories? Every finite verb has a tense and a mood. That's the point of having separate terms; these are independent dimensions of the verb.
Theoretically, there could also be a "reported present" verb form, except that this is semantically impossible: any event that has been reported to you must have happened before the report did, and the report must have happened before you started talking about it, so reported events are stuck in the past.
It's possible, though, to imagine someone making a statement about reported information in the future, in which case the event would take place before the report, but possibly after I describe how I'm imagining the future. Would anything interesting happen in Turkish for this kind of sentence?
-mis'li gecmis zaman or "inferential past tense" is "inferential mood" and "past tense".
Essentially old school people categorised tenses out of thin air; and modern linguists define tenses as "time reference",mood as "modality signalling" that is "relationship to the reality / truth" and aspect as "expression of how something extends over time". So aspect doesn't apply here.
So -mis'li gecmis zaman is a tense and a mood. Sometimes.
The actual meaning of words is defined by how people use them. Serverless has a very specific, well-defined meaning despite its seemingly contradictory etymology.
Sounds like Sweden, except the chaotic booking system.
I don't think I've ever seen a diesel train, ever. In fact, for a long time I was (blissfully) unaware of their existence and the fact that they do exist still surprises me...
Only English is not a problem in Sweden (especially Stockholm), and we hire foreign engineers all the time. Some companies have a majority of foreign born engineers, with a wide range of backgrounds (Brazilian, Russian, Spanish, American, etc.)
Ofc, salary comparisons are hard to make vs. the US, but you can live comfortably on an engineer's salary in Sweden.
Some of the biggest "modern" companies include DICE, Klarna and Spotify. More traditional ones are Ericsson, Scania and Volvo.
Hiring is a bit slow right now though, so that has to be kept in mind.
Buy not only that, you are entitled to 4 consecutive weeks during the summer months.
Having 4 (or more) weeks off during summer is the norm in Sweden.
So the question is rarely about if you're gonna be off, but rather how you're going to spend that time.